This sentence in the rules:
The destination territory already has Friendly Land Units present at the time of entry (beachhead established).
On the same round and turn, that a country can write an order #1 to invade by by land and order #2 invade from two regions out and amphibious assault a territory?
Problem: No beachhead established Just friendly units from land invasion same country during movement execution.
If this is a “No,” then can #2 Friendly Country in turn order after first country write orders to amphibious assault from 2 region out because there are Friendly units in there?
Example where this came up!
North Africa Scenario:
Italians won 1st move bid.
Italians and Germans move ALL troops to M-2 and destroyed British fleet in M-3.
Italians won first move bid.
Italians move in troops to Egypt from T-5 “by land” establishing friendly troops in Egypt and move troops from M-2 to Egypt stating friendly troops rule. Then of course, Germans landed as well.
Resulting in Egypt lost Round 2
End result is Axis takes game by taking Middle East.
Is this right about the Advanced Transport Rules?
Slightly saddened by the lack of response on this forum. Maybe my question wasn’t clear.
However, I did find how people cleared this up on BoardgameGeek stating
A Beachhead requires to be embattled at the start of this turn.:
”A Long Ranged Amphibious Assault Beachhead requires that the territory to be embattled at the start of this turn.“
This clears it up for me.
So in my above example, it could not have been done.
End of Round 1
When I meant ALL troops I meant the ones in the N med. the ones in N Africa moved to Libya.